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Beatriz
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Joined: 12-May-2009 Online Status: Offline Posts: 1 |
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Topic: "Moors" and southwestern Europe.Posted: 13-May-2009 at 00:52 |
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No, I don't understand it either... but it's used as an insult, and also produces the wanted effect. Ignorance is the mother of boldness. |
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pinguin
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Joined: 29-Sep-2006 Location: Chile Online Status: Offline Posts: 7508 |
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 01:32 |
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If Latinos would consider a mixed origin an insult, we should suicide They are wrong. Mixed people don't have "half" and heritage but "twice".
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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pebbles
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Joined: 12-Oct-2008 Online Status: Offline Posts: 409 |
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 01:37 |
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This brings back one memory from many years ago.An Amerasian fellow said to me that they're " the best of two worlds "
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pinguin
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Joined: 29-Sep-2006 Location: Chile Online Status: Offline Posts: 7508 |
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 01:56 |
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Indeed. That's the idea.
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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pebbles
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 03:09 |
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Exactly .... many independent DNA research studies concluded 15%-20% non-Euro ancestry of modern Spain population.
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pinguin
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Joined: 29-Sep-2006 Location: Chile Online Status: Offline Posts: 7508 |
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 03:25 |
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That DNA stuff shoudln't be taken seriously with respect to tracing religion. Jews arrived around the first century BC and had 15 centuries to mix with local population, and they did. The fact is, half those Spanish Jews got converted to Christianism and never left Spain. At least 200.000 people, which is a huge percentage of the Spanish population at that time. By then, it is likely both populations had the same genetic already. People don't pass 1500 years side by side without mixing.
Now, the influence of Jewish mentality shows in Spain in subtle ways. For instance, the love for books, letters and literature makes sense when one think most intellectuals in the Middle Age's Spain were Jews. And Jews love books. So it is not strange that Fernando de Rojas (La Celestina) and Miguel de Cervantes (Don Quixote) are very likely of converse origins.
Besides, that typical anticlericalism of Spanish speaking Intellectuals (so noticeable in Spinoza) and that is part of our tradition, could very well be the result of the fight for freedom in the converse, forced to addapt a religion.
I don't know. I was just speculating.
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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pebbles
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 16:15 |
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Which Germanic tribes invaded the Iberia peninsula ?
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King John
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Joined: 01-Dec-2006 Location: United States Online Status: Offline Posts: 1368 |
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 17:00 |
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pebbles
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 17:19 |
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They were a main branch of The Goths ( it's believed their original homeland:Gotland Sweden ),would it be correct to say Visgoths were Norsemen or Vikings ?
Edited by pebbles - 13-May-2009 at 17:20 |
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pinguin
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 17:26 |
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Nope. Visigoths were Germans. Standard germans. The heritage of German words (and names) in Spanish was likely introduced by them. They weren't the only northern group that arrived to Spain but perhaps the most famous.
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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King John
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Posted: 13-May-2009 at 18:28 |
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Beatriz
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Posted: 10-Jun-2009 at 15:47 |
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I agree with most of the bulk of what you are saying, however I would like to clarify a few things about this matter off the top of my head: -The perfectly different legal, economic and of social level regimes , if any political circumstances impelled to that, resulted in very bloody persecutions, like the one which took place ALREADY around the middle 9th century against Christians in Abdehrraman II's time. -When Arabic was introduced in the Iberian peninsula, it had to coexist with the languages spoken by the different communities that inhabited Al-Andalus, namely: Romance, Hebrew, Berber and Hispano-arabic dialect (Mozarabe), which was not only used in the everyday communication but also in excelent literary expressions known as "zejeles". So even if the language of culture was Arabic, it was Mozarabe the most widely spoken all over. -About living off our Moorish "legacy?": I think it's the other way round- in cities like Granada, everything that's Moorish is highlighted and pointed as main attraction, and there are Moorish things sold, say "Moorish things" that are not by any standard characteristic of Granada but rather of the present North of Africa (not even Al-Andalus) just for the sake of the exotism and to attract tourists' attention. Just like seeing Flamenco dressed dolls in Madrid or Mexican hats in the Ramblas of Barcelona. Edited by Beatriz - 10-Jun-2009 at 16:03 |
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pinguin
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Posted: 10-Jun-2009 at 17:58 |
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When the conquistadors arrived to the Americas they brought with them handcrafts and art styles that came from the Arabs. The horse races the Spanish used were also of Arab origin, togeter with words and even the aspect of more than a Spaniard! I bet there were the Spaniard themselves who spread through the world that Arabic legacy of Al-Andalus, without even noticing they carried it.
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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Reginmund
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Joined: 08-May-2005 Location: Norway Online Status: Offline Posts: 1945 |
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Posted: 11-Jun-2009 at 09:42 |
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"Standard Germans"? What is that? ![]() It's unconventional to call the Goths Norsemen or Vikings, but they were both Germanic, and there is no reason to separate between Germanic peoples in Scandinavia and those settled in continental Europe at this point in history. This is only logical, considering how all Germanic peoples had spread relatively recently from Scandinavia. You need go no further back than 1200 BC and you will not find any Germanic peoples outside of Scandinavia. The peoples living in what is today Germany still spoke Celtic languages. Here can be seen the spread of Germanic tribes, from the heartland in southern Scandinavia in 750 BC, to their furthest extent in 1 AD (the green area): http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/0/03/Germanic_tribes_(750BC-1AD).png The Goths themselves most likely migrated from southern Sweden to continental Europe around 200 AD, from there to the Black Sea and were then pushed west by the Huns in the later 4th century. Even today southern Sweden is called Gothland (Götaland) and off the eastern coast lies an island called Gotland, names that go back as far as recorded history. The Goths themselves referred to their ancestral homeland as "Scandza". In other words, even though it would be highly unconventional to think of the Goths as Vikings or Norsemen, names usually associated with a much later age, to be pedantic the Visigoth kings of Iberia were remotely related to them. Still, we should keep Goths and Vikings as separate phenomenons in history. ![]() To get back on topic; the Moorish conquest of Iberia, though unfortunate for the Visigoth royal dynasty, udoubtedly brought the civilization of the peninsule to previously unseen heights. Next to Byzantium Al-Andalus was the most advanced society in Europe for centuries, built on the heritage of the Roman and Persian empires as brought together by the Arab conquests and channelled into their realms (and beyond). To answer the question of the thread starter I would therefore advise against operating with a clear dividing line between a Muslim and Christian cultural sphere in the first place, on the contrary Al-Andalus should be considered a unique entity based on the fusing of several traditions; Muslim, Christian and Jewish, as well as Roman, Arab and Persian. Of course, during the heyday of Al-Andalus the political and cultural focus was mainly directed south and east, while as the Reconquista advanced Iberia was increasingly influenced by the other European kingdoms, but by this time the heritage of Al-Andalus was already an inherent part of Iberian culture, which the Iberians carried with them even after 1492. Concerning the Visigoths, they were not displaced by the Moorish conquest. The royal dynasty lost everything, but many Gothic noblemen continued in their position and kept their lands, even after having fought the invaders. A famous example is the nobleman Theodemir, who was a great landowner around Murcia and despite opposing the Moors he had his possessions confirmed by a treaty after 711. Later on he visited the Caliph in Baghdad. Edited by Reginmund - 11-Jun-2009 at 09:43 |
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Hwæt! wÄ“ GÄr-Dena in geÄr-dagum,
þeod-cyninga, þrym gefrunon, hu ða æþelingas ellen fremedon. |
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pinguin
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Joined: 29-Sep-2006 Location: Chile Online Status: Offline Posts: 7508 |
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Posted: 12-Jun-2009 at 03:00 |
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Visigoths weren't Vikings, of course, but German speakers that started to arrived to Spain earlier that norse raids even started.
Theirs heritage can still be perceived not only in Spanish and Hispanic peoples appariences (some look nordics) but also in the language itself. Believe it or not words as Spanish sounding as the following are Germanic in origin: Bandido, Bandera, Banda, Guzman, Bernardo, and a thousand more.
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"He who attempts to count the stars, not even knowing how to count the knots of the 'quipus'(counting string), ought to be held in derision."
Inca Pachacutec (1438-1471) |
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drgonzaga
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Joined: 15-May-2005 Online Status: Offline Posts: 610 |
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Posted: 12-Jun-2009 at 05:32 |
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You forget the most obvious Nordic clue, the ez surnames: "son of". For example, Gonzalez is the equivalent of Gunderalfson. As for the hirsute, the Spanish bigote is the germanic bei Got! And guardia is wardja. And if you wish to terminate a Spanish vampire you had best sharpen your estaca or stakka.
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Carcharodon
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Joined: 04-May-2007 Location: Sweden Online Status: Offline Posts: 479 |
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Posted: 12-Jun-2009 at 10:10 |
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The homeland of the Goths seems rather have been south of the Baltic sea. That they should have come from the relatively small island of Gotland is not likely. The archaeological record or other evidence doesn´t support this rather antiquated idea.
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Reginmund
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Joined: 08-May-2005 Location: Norway Online Status: Offline Posts: 1945 |
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Posted: 12-Jun-2009 at 13:32 |
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Has there been a theory claiming they were from Gotland? It seems far more reasonable to assume they were from southern Sweden, ie Gothland/Götaland, and then they migrated or extended their influence to the island nearby, so that it assumed a similar name. Seeing as the Goths were Germanic it's impossible that they originated in their settlement in today's Poland, they must have emigrated from Scandinavia at some point, and seeing as their stamp is set on southern Sweden it seems most likely this was the area. |
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Hwæt! wÄ“ GÄr-Dena in geÄr-dagum,
þeod-cyninga, þrym gefrunon, hu ða æþelingas ellen fremedon. |
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